2009-6-1 09:23:00
[Compiler's Note: The "Early Keys Posts" articles are a from a series of lessons that JJ Dewey gave while conducting classes on AOL (America Online), circa 1994 which he subsequently posted to The Keys Of Knowledge spiritual discussion group. Due to the length of the message made to The Keys, the original post was divided in two parts. Part Two contains Messages #172 through #175. This is Part 2 of 2. A link to Part 1 can be found at the end of this archived article.]
JJ:
You say I quoted out of context. Then why do you not quote enough text so you will be satisfied?
I quoted enough to make my point. What do you want me to do?
We do not know if the original authors of the scriptures used a small or large "G" when they were talking about the various descriptions of God. Actually it does not matter. God is God whether it is capitalized or not. If the Great Jehovah calls men Gods then they must be Gods.
Perhaps god with a small "g" is the Presence in mortal flesh and God with a capital is a being living in a state of immortality.
The Gods in Psalms 82:6 are not false gods as you say because they are named so by the mouth of Jehovah and Jesus "and the scripture cannot be broken." You would have to call them liars to call men of Psalms false Gods.
John 10:35 says: "If he (God) called them gods, unto whom the word of God came...."
Here Jesus clearly states that men are called gods and uses it as evidence that he can be called the Son of God.
You did not explain why God said in Genesis that man is to "become as one of us."
I agree with you that scripture explains scripture, but I seem to be the one using this principle.
JJ:
We are not talking about what Satan said here. We are talking about what God said. He (God) said: "The man is to become as one of us." (Gen 3:22) If God said this then what does it matter what Satan said or did not say?
Under the law of Moses we do fall short of the glory of God, but under the law of Christ we are now "the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is." (1 John 3:2)
JJ:
You are open to knowledge with few preconceived notions. In addition you are doing your best and have a sense that revelation is possible.
Even though the key word is not realized without some effort this does not mean your answer was wrong. Students give many very good answers along the path to the keys. Before it is over you will find that you will have taught yourself more than I could ever teach you.
That which makes us different from every other being is a quality that we have total control over. You have no control over cycles, but you must move with them. There are certain abilities or aspects that you have full power to use. The first key is the most important.
In answer to your question. There are certain things I give to everyone like the In the beginning essay which sheds some light on who you are, but for the most part the instructions are geared to your responses.
I'll tell you more about myself when I have time and the time is right.
I'm glad this course is a joy to you. That makes it also a joy to bring it to you.
JJ:
A reader quotes Jesus as saying:
"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?"
"If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;"
Then he says:
"The correct answer to Jesus Christ's question, 'Is it not written in your law,' is 'No, it's not in Torah.' It's written in Isaiah (Nevi'im), and Psalms (Ketuvim). It's a condemnation of the rulers of Israel, warning them that they've judged with favoritism, and unjustly. It's a stern warning to repent, and return to the righteousness of God."
The basic argument here is that since Psalms is not in the Tora (the Law) then a quote from Psalms is not a quote from the law. Therefore Jesus must have been using a play on words.
Jesus himself disagrees with you my friend. He calls the Psalms the law in another verse in John 15:26:
"But this cometh to pass, that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their LAW, They hated me without a cause."
Here Jesus directly quotes from Psalms 35:19 and repeated in 69:4.
This is not all. The scriptures call the Psalms the law in John 12:34: "We have heard out of the LAW that Christ abideth for ever...."
This scripture is a direct reference to Psalms 89, Verses 4, 29, & 36-37 where we have this truth affirmed several times.
Perhaps you, current Jews, and even scholars do not call the Psalms the law, but the scriptures refer to it as such three times.
This pretty much destroys your whole argument.
In addition to this, a careful reading of John 10:34-35 reveals that Jesus was indeed quoting from the Psalms. First it is an exact quote. Second he stated that those who received the Word of God were called Gods "and the scripture cannot be broken."
Why try and break the scripture and insist that Jesus did not mean what he said?
The statement "I said, Ye are gods," is definitely from the Psalms and not found by that wording in the Tora. Even so men are directly called gods there. Moses was called a god twice. See Exodus 4:16 & Exodus 7:1.
Those who judged Israel were also called gods. I'll quote from a previous posting here:
Not only was Moses called a god, but the men appointed to judge the people were called gods also. Translators have tried to cover this up by mistranslating the word ELOHIYM: "Then his master shall bring him unto the judges...." (Exo 21:6) The word "judges" comes from ELOHIYM which should be rendered "gods."
This mistranslation, as any good concordance will reveal, occurs three times in the next chapter: "If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought unto the judges (ELOHIYM -- gods), to see whether he have put his hand unto his neighbor's goods. For all manner of trespass, whether it be of ox for ass, for sheep, for raiment, or for any manner of lost thing, which another challengeth to be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the judges (gods); and the judges (gods) shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his neighbor." (Exodus 22:8-9)
ELOHIYM is translated correctly in the King James version in Verse 28: "Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of the people."
The translation of the word "Elohiym" into the word "judges" or other wordings is a purely human conjecture. Only by rendering the translation as god or gods does it make sense.
The question should not be: "How can we prove that men were not called gods?" The question should be: "Since men are called gods throughout the scripture then what does it mean?"
I am one of the few that can answer this question honestly because I belong to no religion and can read the scriptures with no agenda.
"Be wary of the man who urges an action in which he himself incurs no risk."
-- Joaquin Setanti
Copyright © 2009 by J.J. Dewey, All Rights Reserved